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You Are On Multi Choice Question Bank SET 452
22601. The spindle forms in the
(A): G1 phase (B): G2 phase (C): M phase (D): S phase
22602. Which phase of mitosis is associated with chromosomes aligned at the center of the cell and centromeres divide?
(A): anaphase (B): interphase (C): metaphase (D): prophase
22603. The event(s) which does not occur during interphase, is/are
(A): Chromatin condenses (B): Protein Synthesis (C): Organelles replication (D): DNA replication
22604. In prokaryotes, just before the cell divides, the two daughter genomes are attached side by side to the
(A): cell membrane (B): replication origin (C): centromeres (D): equatorial plate
22605. Konark Sun temple is situated at:
(A): Rajasthan (B): Orissa (C): Tamil Nadu (D): Uttar Pradesh
22606. Which of the following is regarded as an era of Brahmanic revival ?
(A): Kushan age (B): Maurya age (C): Gupta age (D): None of these
22607. λ ZAP vector is an example of
(A): phage (B): phagemid (C): cosmid (D): plasmid
22608. λ gt 10 and λ gt 11 vectors can propagate cloned fragments up to
(A): 6-7 kb (B): 1-2 kb (C): 40-44 kb (D): 20-23 kb
22609. Select the wrong statement about plasmids?
(A): It is extrachromosomal (B): It is double stranded (C): Its replication depends upon host cell (D): It is closed and circular DNA
22610. Stuffer is
(A): the right arm of the vector DNA (B): the left arm of the vector DNA (C): central fragment of the vector DNA (D): none of the above
22611. Conjugative plasmids
(A): exhibit antibiotic resistance (B): do not exhibit antibiotic resistance (C): carry transfer genes called the tra genes (D): do not carry transfer genes
22612. Plasmid incompatibility is
(A): inability of a plasmid to grow in the host (B): inability of two different plasmids to coexist in the same host cell in the absence of selection pressure. (C): both and (D): none of the above
22613. P1 cloning vector allow cloning of DNA of the length of
(A): 100 kbp (B): 50 kbp (C): 20 kbp (D): 10 kbp
22614. Charon 34 and Charon 35 can clone DNA upto
(A): 1-2 kb (B): 6-7 kb (C): 9-20 kb (D): 30-35 kb
22615. Charon vectors are different from EMBL vectors because
(A): they have more extensive range of restriction targets with in their polylinkers. (B): physical separation of lambda arm from central fragment is required (C): both and (D): physical separation of lambda arm from central fragment is not required
22616. P1 cloning vector is the example of
(A): plasmid (B): cosmid (C): bacteriophage (D): phagemid
22617. Cos site of the cosmids
(A): consists of 12 bases (B): helps whole genome in circularization and ligation (C): both and (D): contains cleavage site
22618. M 13 is an example of
(A): filamentous phage (B): single stranded DNA vector (C): both and (D): plasmid
22619. Phagemid vectors are
(A): combination of plasmid and phage λ (B): combination of phages and cosmid (C): phages carrying properties of plasmids (D): all of the above
22620. Single stranded vectors are useful
(A): for sequencing of cloned DNA (B): for oligonucleotide directed mutagenesis (C): for probe preparation (D): all of the above
22621. Inserted DNA in λ gt 11 can be expressed as
(A): β-galactosidase fused protein (B): free protein in the cytoplasm (C): free protein that is secreted out (D): all of the above
22622. EMBL 3 and EMBL 4 are replacement vectors, which can clone DNA up to
(A): 6-7 kb (B): 15-25 kb (C): 40-44 kb (D): 1-2 kb
22623. Size of the DNA that can be packaged into a λ phage is
(A): 50 kb (B): 35-53 kb (C): 40-50 kb (D): any size
22624. Charon 34 and Charon 35 are the examples of
(A): plasmid vector (B): cosmid vector (C): phage vector (D): phagemid vector
22625. Cosmid vectors are used for
(A): cloning small fragments of DNA (B): cloning large fragments of DNA (C): cloning prokaryotic DNA only (D): cloning eukaryotic DNA only
22626. Plasmids which are maintained as limited number of copies per cell are known as
(A): stringent plasmids (B): relaxed plasmids (C): cryptic plasmids (D): all of these
22627. Cryptic plasmids
(A): do not exhibit any phenotypic trait (B): exhibit many phenotypic traits (C): exhibit one phenotypic traits (D): exhibit antibiotic resistance
22628. Phagemid consist of
(A): plasmid vector carrying λ attachment (λ att) site (B): plasmid vector carrying origin of replication of λ phage only (C): plasmid vector carrying origin of replication of plasmid only
22629. Maximum size of foreign DNA that can be inserted into an insertion vector is
(A): 35 kb (B): 18 kb (C): 50 kb (D): 27 kb
22630. Plasmids which are maintained as multiple copy number per cell are known as
(A): stringent plasmids (B): relaxed plasmids (C): cryptic plasmids (D): none of these
22631. Cosmid vectors are
(A): plasmids that contain fragment of λ DNA including the cos site (B): phages that lack cos site (C): plasmids that have no selection marker (D): cryptic plasmids
22632. Cosmids lack
(A): genes coding for viral proteins (B): origin of replication (C): marker genes coding for replication (D): cleavage site for the insertion of foreign DNA
22633. Maximum size of foreign DNA that can be inserted into a replacement vector is
(A): 25-30 kb (B): 18-20 kb (C): 20-25 kb (D): 40-50 kb
22634. Which of the following is not true about phagemid?
(A): Contain functional origin of replication of the plasmid and λ phage (B): May be propagated as a plasmid or as phage in appropriate strain (C): Contain λ att site (D): Can only be propagated as phage
22635. pBR 322 has/have which of the following selection marker(s)?
(A): Ampr (B): Tetr (C): Both and (D): Kanr
22636. A plasmid can be considered as a suitable cloning vector if
(A): it can be readily isolated from the cells (B): it possesses a single restriction site for one or more restriction enzymes (C): insertion of foreign DNA does not alter its replication properties (D): All of the above
22637. Difference between λ gt 10 and λ gt 11 vectors is that
(A): λ gt 11 is an expression vector (B): λ gt 10 is an expression vector (C): λ gt 10 is a replacement vector (D): λ gt 11 is a replacement vector
22638. The first woman judge of the Supreme Court belongs to ————
(A): West Bengal (B): Kerala (C): Tamil Nadu (D): Andhra Pradesh
22639. Who, amongst the following Italian travllers, left a very praiseworthy account of the Vijayanagar empire ?
(A): E. Barbosa (B): Manucci (C): Nicolo Conti (D): Marco Polo
22640. During sickle cell anemia which of the following takes place?
(A): Glutamine change to valine (B): Valine change to glutamine (C): Aspartic acid change to glutamic acid (D): Glutamic acid change to aspartic acid
22641. Methotrexate is toxic to human cells because it inhibits
(A): formation of CTP from UTP (B): reduction of H2 folate to H4 folate (C): synthesis of PRPP (D): none of the above
22642. What is the defective enzyme in the glycogen storage Von Gierke's disease?
(A): Phosphorylase (B): Phosphofructokinase (C): Glucose-6-phosphatase (D): None of the above
22643. A deficiency of the enzyme Hypoxanthine Guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT) may cause
(A): Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (B): Lesch- Nyhan syndrome
22644. Which of the following sets belongs to a distinct class or category?
(A): Ribose, sucrose, glucose, fructose (B): Sterols, waxes, fatty acids, amino acids. (C): Oils, sterols, waxes, fats (D): Nucleotide, nucleoside, nucleus, DNA
22645. The disorder in which of the following may cause "Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome"?
(A): Dlashin protein (B): Collagen protein (C): Fibrin protein (D): Globulin protein
22646. Which of the protein is involved in Alzheimer's disease?
(A): A4 (B): Amylin (C): Fibrin (D): Alzhemin
22647. If the RBC of human were kept in 0.9% NaCl solution, what sort of change will occur to RBC?
(A): Cell will Burst (B): Cell will shrink (C): No change to RBC (D): RBC will destroy
22648. Which of the modification in hemoglobin is the cause of sickle cell anemia?
(A): A mutation in the beta chain (B): A deletion in the beta chain (C): Replacement of the B chain by D chain (D): None of the above
22649. Klinefelter syndrome is a manifestation of which chromosome aneuploidy?
(A): XXX (B): XYY (C): XXY (D): None of these
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